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...it will be conducted by John Williams, or it is not happening.
Who has made this stipulation? It doesn't make sense from any point of view, artistically or commercially.
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Posted: |
Oct 20, 2017 - 8:10 AM
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By: |
SchiffyM
(Member)
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why did they decide Midway? It is a curious choice when you consider that (a) Dracula is/was one of their most requested score (,b) They could not find the masters and know that the tapes they that do own are not in a good state and (c) Dracula is from JW's most creative period, so a newly recorded score would have sold in large numbers.
This one seems pretty easy. In 1998 (when the recording came out), "Midway" was a major hole in the Williams discography, one of only four post-"Jaws" scores never to have been released at all (aside from a very rare 45). "Dracula" had been issued on CD just eight years earlier.
Was it complete? No, but 1998 was also the year of FSM's very first releases, and only then began an expectation of complete releases (not even all FSM releases were complete at first). The state of the "Dracula" master tapes may very well not have been known at all at that time.
Regardless, if they had the choice between recording a never-before-released Williams score vs. one they had issued eight years earlier, "Midway" seems like a good choice. (And of course, I have no idea of the relative states of the written scores themselves, rights issues, etc., all of which could have also been factors.)
See? Not so curious!
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